Q1Recognition
A dog has weakness, tachycardia, icterus, regenerative anemia, and marked spherocytosis on blood smear. Which diagnosis is most likely?
AAcute blood loss
BIron deficiency anemia
CImmune-mediated hemolytic anemia
DAnemia of chronic disease
EPrimary thrombocytopenia
Correct answer: C. Regenerative anemia plus spherocytes and icterus is a classic IMHA pattern.
Q2Stabilization
A dog with suspected IMHA is collapsing with a critically low PCV. What is the best immediate management principle?
ASupport oxygen delivery and transfuse as needed
BWait for Coombs testing before any therapy
CGive insulin first
DWithhold therapy until bilirubin normalizes
ESend the dog home on oral iron
Correct answer: A. This is the stabilization priority question. Rescue the dangerously anemic patient first.
Q3Evidence
Which finding most strongly supports immune-mediated hemolysis over simple blood loss anemia?
ARegeneration alone
BSpherocytes and positive saline agglutination
CLow hematocrit
DTachycardia
EWeak pulses
Correct answer: B. Those are high-yield clues pointing toward an immune-mediated hemolytic process rather than simple hemorrhage.
Q4Treatment
Which therapy is most central to initial treatment of primary canine IMHA?
ALevothyroxine
BDOCP
CInsulin CRI
DPrednisone-based immunosuppression
EDesmopressin
Correct answer: D. Prednisone-based immunosuppression is the central board-style treatment answer for primary IMHA.
Q5Trap question
Why is canine IMHA considered especially high-risk even after initial stabilization?
ABecause it always converts to leukemia
BBecause it always causes DKA
CBecause thromboembolism risk is part of the disease
DBecause platelets are always zero
EBecause transfusion is contraindicated
Correct answer: C. Strong IMHA answers include thrombosis awareness, not just anemia treatment.