Q1Pattern recognition
A 4yr FS Standard Poodle presents with acute collapse, vomiting, and profound weakness. On examination, the dog is depressed and poorly perfused, but the heart rate is only 48 bpm. Which diagnosis should rise sharply on your differential list?
ASeptic shock
BHypoadrenocorticism
CPrimary GI foreign body
DCardiogenic pulmonary edema
EAcute pancreatitis
Correct answer: B. The clue is the mismatch: a very sick, poorly perfused dog should usually be tachycardic. Bradycardia in this setting strongly suggests hyperkalemia, which should push Addison's high on the list.
Q2Next best step
A 5yr MN Standard Poodle presents collapsed and obtunded. HR is 44 bpm, BP 65/40 mmHg. The owner reports intermittent vomiting for one week. Bloodwork is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step?
APerform ACTH stimulation test before initiating treatment
BStart IV fluid resuscitation with 0.9% NaCl
CAdminister prednisone IV for suspected cortisol deficiency
DGive fludrocortisone orally for mineralocorticoid replacement
EObtain abdominal ultrasound to rule out splenic mass
Correct answer: B. This is an unstable Addisonian crisis until proven otherwise. IV isotonic fluids come before definitive testing.
Q3Interpretation
A 4yr SF Labrador Retriever has a 2-month history of intermittent vomiting, lethargy, and weight loss. Serum chemistry: Na 126 mEq/L, K 6.9 mEq/L, BUN 42 mg/dL, Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis: USG 1.018. Which interpretation is most consistent with these findings?
AChronic kidney disease with secondary electrolyte derangement
BHypoadrenocorticism with prerenal azotemia
CProtein-losing nephropathy
DPrimary hyperaldosteronism from adrenal adenoma
ECentral diabetes insipidus with hyponatremia
Correct answer: B. Na:K = 18.3, well below 27. The urine is not dilute, which helps separate this from CKD.
Q4Treatment
A 7yr MN Beagle is diagnosed with hypoadrenocorticism. ACTH stimulation test: baseline cortisol 0.8 µg/dL, post-ACTH cortisol 1.1 µg/dL. He is now clinically stable after emergency treatment. Which describes the correct long-term management?
APrednisone alone at anti-inflammatory doses is sufficient
BFludrocortisone alone provides both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid replacement
CDOCP injections every 25–30 days plus daily prednisone
DOral hydrocortisone and spironolactone combined
EDexamethasone long-term — preferred over prednisone for chronic use
Correct answer: C. Long-term management replaces both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid deficiency. DOCP plus prednisone is the current standard approach.
Q5Differential
A 5yr SF mixed breed dog presents with acute collapse. HR is 42 bpm. Serum Na 124 mEq/L, K 7.1 mEq/L. A colleague suggests this could be chronic kidney disease causing the electrolyte changes. Which finding most helps differentiate hypoadrenocorticism from CKD in this case?
AElevated BUN and creatinine
BUrine specific gravity of 1.018
CLow serum sodium
DAge and breed of the patient
EPresence of vomiting
Correct answer: B. CKD usually causes loss of urine concentrating ability. A non-dilute urine SG makes Addison's with prerenal azotemia more likely.
Q6Trap question
A 6yr SF Labrador has a 3-month history of intermittent vomiting and lethargy. Serum electrolytes are within normal reference ranges. Na:K ratio is 31. The attending veterinarian concludes that hypoadrenocorticism has been excluded based on the normal electrolytes. Which statement is most accurate regarding this conclusion?
AThe conclusion is correct — normal Na:K ratio effectively rules out Addison's disease
BThe conclusion is incorrect — atypical Addison's can present with normal electrolytes
CThe conclusion is correct — only typical Addison's occurs in dogs over 5 years
DThe conclusion is incorrect — potassium alone is not sufficient to assess
EThe conclusion is correct if repeated electrolytes also remain normal
Correct answer: B. Atypical Addison's can have normal electrolytes. Normal sodium and potassium do not rule it out if the history and pattern still fit.